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OT: Promotion in chess

Posted By: Nack Ballard
Date: Friday, 2 September 2011, at 5:53 p.m.

In Response To: OT: Promotion in chess (Timothy Chow)

Suppose you advance a pawn to its promotion square, remove it from the board, and announce, "Queen." Then you pick up a queen that's off the board, stretch your hand out towards the promotion square, but then stop short, and say, "Sorry, I mean Knight." Then you put down the queen and put a knight on the promotion square. Have you violated the touch-move rule? ...According the current FIDE rules, the answer is no.

Interesting! I didn't know that (though it would almost never arise.)

Suppose, as White, you promote a pawn on e8 to a rook. If your king has not moved and there are no other pieces on the e-file and e1, e2, and e3 are not under attack, can you castle by moving Ke3, Re2? The rook hasn't moved yet, has it?...

I'm confused by your square designations. Castling kingside is Ke1-g1 + Rh1-f1. Castling queenside is Ke1-c1 + Ra1-d1. The relevant issue is whether either (1) e1, f1 or g1, or (2) e1, d1 or c1, are under attack.

Anyway, why should the manifestation of a new White rook on e8 have anything to do with an unmoved White rook on the first rank? Maybe I've misconstrued your question, but it seems like a no-brainer to me that White should still be allowed to castle after his underpromotion on e8.

Raymond Smullyan carries the conundrum even further by supposing that you amend the rules of chess to allow promotion to a piece of your opponent's color. If Black hasn't moved his a8 rook yet and you play bxa8=BR, can Black castle with your promoted rook? Does it matter if you remove the current rook and replace it with another rook, as opposed to just removing your b7 pawn from the board without touching the rook?

I would rule that Black can castle only with his original rook. Once it moves off the square or is captured there, castling on that side is disallowed. Then again, if one is adding a rule one can modify existing rules to accommocate so in that sense I suppose it could go either way.

No, it makes no difference if White simply removes the b7 pawn or if he goes through the actual motion of b7xa8=BR, removing that rook and replacing the white pawn with the same rook or another black rook. It's the same move no matter how it is physically executed and the rook is no longer original.

Nack

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