How would you explain the difference in top plays? I tend to think that in diagram A, the timing is close (we got 1 more back, which is 20 pips more), so we should focus on prime vs prime and play purely. In diagram B we got worse timing, so we should focus more on escaping than prime vs prime, hence play with no blots right now and hope for a 6 next turn. Is it that "simple"? What would be your process of judging any of these positions OTB?
| 1. | Rollout1 | 10/9 6/4 | eq: +0,054 |
| Player:
Opponent: | 53,97% (G:8,66% B:0,29%)
46,03% (G:15,12% B:0,61%) | Conf.: ± 0,010 (+0,045...+0,064) - [100,0%]
Duration: 17 minutes 21 seconds |
|
| 2. | Rollout1 | 10/9 10/8 | eq: +0,020 (-0,034) |
| Player:
Opponent: | 51,67% (G:8,62% B:0,30%)
48,33% (G:11,87% B:0,37%) | Conf.: ± 0,009 (+0,011...+0,029) - [0,0%]
Duration: 14 minutes 49 seconds |
|
| 3. | Rollout2 | 9/7 6/5 | eq: -0,081 (-0,135) |
| Player:
Opponent: | 48,03% (G:7,55% B:0,25%)
51,97% (G:10,06% B:0,34%) | Conf.: ± 0,016 (-0,097...-0,064) - [0,0%]
Duration: 2 minutes 42 seconds |
|
| |
1 2592 Games rolled with Variance Reduction.
Moves: 3-ply, cube decisions: XG Roller
2 648 Games rolled with Variance Reduction.
Moves: 3-ply, cube decisions: XG Roller
|
| 1. | Rollout1 | 10/9 10/8 | eq: -0,115 |
| Player:
Opponent: | 47,53% (G:10,24% B:0,33%)
52,47% (G:11,85% B:0,46%) | Conf.: ± 0,009 (-0,124...-0,105) - [100,0%]
Duration: 16 minutes 11 seconds |
|
| 2. | Rollout1 | 10/9 6/4 | eq: -0,145 (-0,031) |
| Player:
Opponent: | 47,23% (G:10,13% B:0,36%)
52,77% (G:14,58% B:0,57%) | Conf.: ± 0,011 (-0,156...-0,135) - [0,0%]
Duration: 17 minutes 43 seconds |
|
| |
1 2592 Games rolled with Variance Reduction.
Moves: 3-ply, cube decisions: XG Roller
|
