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MET question

Posted By: David Rockwell
Date: Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 4:49 p.m.

Can anyone think of any THEORETICAL reason that the match equity at 3a1a Post should be different than 2a1a Crawford? I'm not considering practical differences like a player who refrains from doubling immediately in hopes of getting a later cube error. If two perfect computers were playing perfectly, would there be any differences at these scores? I can't think of any and believe the MET should be identical at these points. But, I would like to check my reasoning before I proceed.

Messages In This Thread

• MET question
  David Rockwell -- Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 4:49 p.m.
  • MET question
    neilkaz -- Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 4:53 p.m.
  • MET question
    Bob Koca -- Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 5:35 p.m.
  • MET question
    Rich Munitz -- Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 8:46 p.m.
    • MET question
      Bob Koca -- Saturday, 13 December 2008, at 9:33 p.m.
    • MET question
      Caryl Stephanson -- Sunday, 14 December 2008, at 5:55 p.m.
      • MET question
        Rich Munitz -- Wednesday, 17 December 2008, at 4:20 a.m.
    • MET question
      Marty Storer -- Wednesday, 17 December 2008, at 8:39 p.m.