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Bad news from Belgium - OT questions

Posted By: Casper van der Tak
Date: Monday, 11 October 2010, at 12:43 p.m.

In Response To: Bad news from Belgium (Bob Koca)

I am curious about the mathematics here. Intuitively, I'd say that there would be an infinitesimally small, but non-zero chance that perfect play would be found. I have read before - I guess that either Timothy or Jason wrote it - that the math works out better if you consider this a zero chance, but why? Any reference to sources on the web would be much appreciated.

Somehow, this seems very paradoxical. It also means that after having drawn a random number, you would need to say that the chance of drawing that particular random number was zero, which would be odd. Is the trick here that you cannot unambiguously point to 'that particular random number' because of the infinite series of figures behind the decimal point?! Or is asking this question wrong?

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