1) There is no sequence that makes X too good to double
2) X has a market losing sequence
3) X has no roll so that opponent has immediately lost his market.
4) The double is optional
| 43 | |
|---|---|
| |
| Blue on roll | 165 |
1) Blue's (X's) best sequence is 44-66 (fan), at which point Blue is not too good to double (as requested). However, Snowie reports that White has an "optional double" after Blue's 44. Blue (X) won't be too good after the fan, but it loses relevance if White doubles. So, just making sure.
2) Same sequence (44-66) is a double/pass (Also 55-66). However, same wrinkle: White has an optional double after either 44 or 55 (she can just as well not double as double before fanning). Is it still okay to characterize the 44-66 or 55-66 sequence as a Blue market loss?
3) If Blue hits, he can take (no market loss by White). Or if Blue enters with 33, White has an optional double / take (says Snowie). Or if Blue enters one checker with a 3 or fans, White is too good to double; does that also qualify as White never immediately losing his market? After no Blue roll does it become White double/pass.
4) Blue's equity is reported to be the same (-0.919) whether he doubles or not. However, Snowie also reports it as "double take" -- the word "optional" does not appear. Is that okay or not?
Nack