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Can anyone explain this?

Posted By: Daniel Murphy
Date: Thursday, 25 November 2010, at 4:53 p.m.

In Response To: Can anyone explain this? (John O'Hagan)

This might help:

Although there might actually be more market losers at 1a,5a (for example 5-4 ... 4-1 -> RD/T at 3a,3a but RD/P at 1a,5a), when you roll bad numbers having given up cube possession is much more costly at 1a,5a.

For example, suppose you roll your worst number, 2-1:

(A)

3a,3a and opp holds 4-cube: Your ME = 53.8%

3a,3a and you hold 2-cube: Your ME = 57.2%

In this sequence your double cost you only 4.6% ME

(B)

1a,5a and opp holds 4-cube (and RD/T to 8, of course): Your ME = 53.8%

1a,5a and you hold 2-cube: Your ME = 62.7%

In this sequence your double cost you 8.9% ME.

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