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BGonline.org Forums
SMITH and JONES: The Undoubled Game
Posted By: Nack Ballard In Response To: SMITH and JONES: The Undoubled Game (Bob Koca)
Date: Wednesday, 31 May 2017, at 7:27 p.m.
"The very FIRST time a market gainer appears (which must happen eventually, if the game is to ever break contact), it automatically means that the other player had a market-losing sequence on the roll prior (without an opposing market gainer, by definition), and therefore had a double"
Does "had a double" equal "had a mandatory double"? Assuming that is what is meant I do not believe a proof of what is being said in that paragraph has been given. In particular suppose the game changes in the following way: The first several rolls do not change the game from 50-50 and then there is a roll (let's say on A's turn) which decides the game. A has a market losing roll but the double is optional with gains and regrets exactly balancing. Two turns before that A did not a have a market losing sequence (two rolls causing no change in win chance are coming) The turn before B has a market losing sequence but it is optional violating the conjecture.
Can you please clarify your final sentence? Are you referring to B's roll that occurs between the two A rolls you mentioned (current, and two rolls ago)? If so, then doesn't it prove my point that the "other player" (B) had a proper double? He had a market-losing sequence(s) but could have no offsetting gainer, because the assumption has been made that the very FIRST gainer occurred on the roll after his (i.e., the current roll).
Nack
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