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Solution To A More General Question

Posted By: Nack Ballard
Date: Saturday, 1 February 2014, at 5:51 p.m.

In Response To: Solution To A More General Question (Paul Weaver)

Instructive cusps, Paul!

The difference between a White distribution of 20 13***8**6****5* and an optimally smooth one seems to be a difference of about a pip and a half. Most of this difference is already accounted for by NBM's variant.

That is, there seems to be little difference between a five-prime, and a four-prime with three spares on the 6pt. Simply altering the nature of my suggested 1-pip lead increase from 8/7 to 7/6 (as NBM did) already moves the take/pass cusp by 0.05, from 1.03 to 0.98. (An optimal smoothness for 126-136, such as your Position 2 plus 8/7, would probably only reduce it another 0.02 to 0.96.) I reckon that the effect on the double and redouble cusps is similar.

Perhaps Blue will point on White with 53 or 51 and get hit back with 64 (which occurs 8/1296). Or it might happen next roll. Or Blue might stand pat, White runs with 62, 42 or 22, Blue hits and gets hit back. The strength of White's prime, and whether she has chosen that moment on a subsequent roll to leave an inner board blot in order to smoothen, will then matter.

Nack

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