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Wastage in the one-checker model

Posted By: Fabrice Liardet
Date: Tuesday, 4 May 2010, at 8:50 a.m.

Is there a neat way to compute the pip wastage in the one-checker model, with the length of the race large enough (or tending to infinity) ? Maybe in terms of the mean roll and some kind of variance ?

I toyed a bit with simple models with only two different rolls, and it looks like when the mean roll is large enough, the wastage will always have to be approximatively between mean/4 (for minimal variance) and mean/2 (for maximal variance). Is that correct ?

Messages In This Thread

• Wastage in the one-checker model
  Fabrice Liardet -- Tuesday, 4 May 2010, at 8:50 a.m.
  • Wastage in the one-checker model
    Sam Pottle -- Tuesday, 4 May 2010, at 9:23 a.m.
    • Wastage in the one-checker model
      Rich Munitz -- Wednesday, 5 May 2010, at 4:38 a.m.
  • Wastage in the one-checker model
    Maik Stiebler -- Tuesday, 4 May 2010, at 9:21 p.m.
    • Wastage in the one-checker model
      Bob Koca -- Tuesday, 4 May 2010, at 9:26 p.m.
      • Wastage in the one-checker model
        Maik Stiebler -- Wednesday, 5 May 2010, at 3:02 a.m.
    • Wastage in the one-checker model
      Fabrice Liardet -- Wednesday, 5 May 2010, at 12:23 p.m.
      • Wastage in the one-checker model
        Maik Stiebler -- Wednesday, 5 May 2010, at 12:41 p.m.
        • Wastage in the one-checker model
          Fabrice Liardet -- Thursday, 6 May 2010, at 8:31 a.m.
          • Wastage in the one-checker model
            Maik Stiebler -- Thursday, 6 May 2010, at 11:06 a.m.
            • Wastage in the one-checker model
              Fabrice Liardet -- Thursday, 6 May 2010, at 11:42 a.m.